Let \(\mathbb{R}\) denote the set of all real numbers. Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be an arbitrary function and let \(g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be the function defined by $$g(x)=x f(x),\quad \forall x\in\mathbb{R}.$$ Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
Statement (A) is false because g(0)=0·f(0)=0 only if g is defined that way, and continuity is not guaranteed for arbitrary f. For (B), if f is continuous at 0, then f(0) exists and is finite. Hence \(g'(0)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{hf(h)-0}{h}=\lim_{h\to0}f(h)=f(0)\), so g is differentiable at 0. Thus (B) is true. For (C), consider a function f that is not continuous at 0 but has a finite limit as x→0; then g may still be differentiable. Hence (C) is false. For (D), if g is differentiable at 0, then \(\lim_{h\to0}\frac{g(h)-g(0)}{h}=\lim_{h\to0}f(h)\) exists, implying that \(\lim_{x\to0}f(x)\) exists. Therefore (D) is true.
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